Physical Therapy Evaluation Tool (PEAT) 4 Practice Exam

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• Which statement best describes red flags that require urgent medical evaluation?
• ANOVA test is used to compare which of the following?
• In analysis of covariance, the effects of which factors are adjusted for when comparing groups?
• Weak hip flexors cause which gait deviation?
• What are the approximate percentages of stance and swing phases in a gait cycle?
• Hypoparathyroidism causes which calcium-related change?
• Bell palsy is best described as?
• Which activities are most impacted by limited hip or knee range of motion?
• Which FIM level corresponds to Maximal Assist (patient participation 25% to 49%)?
• What is the closed-pack position of the shoulder joint?
• ASIA D is appropriate when which criterion is met?
• Which finding is commonly associated with metabolic acidosis?
• Pleural friction rub sounds are best described as which?
• In lumbar traction, disc protrusion with spasm or elongation uses which percent body weight?
• Calcium deposits are treated with acetic acid delivered at which electrode in iontophoresis?
• A positive straight leg raise test indicates what?
• In PT outcome studies, which statement best describes a large effect size?
• Which headache type is more commonly seen in females?
• Intrinsic minus position involves which digits first?
• Which balance measure is commonly used to screen fall risk in older adults?
• Which statement best describes joint position sense testing at the knee?
• In straight leg raise testing, which nerve pathways are described as involved?
• Which test is used to evaluate thoracic outlet syndrome risk?
• Which INR value indicates high risk for bleeding?
• Rhonchi are most commonly associated with which conditions?
• In the Supine to Sit test, a reversal of limb lengths between the supine and long-sitting positions indicates what?
• What is the therapeutic INR range for Warfarin therapy?
• Why is standardizing ROM measurement technique important?
• In a PT evaluation, which component logically follows history and precedes the evaluation?
• Which muscles are innervated by the trigeminal nerve?
• During gait, leaning toward the prosthetic side is most likely due to which issue?
• Multidisciplinary care is indicated in PT evaluation when there are red flags requiring medical collaboration.
• Which principle governs progressive resistance training in PT?
• During exercise, ST depression is most indicative of which condition?
• For hip burn contracture prevention, what is the recommended position?
• In the straight leg raise framework, which nerve corresponds to hip flexion, knee extension, and dorsiflexion with inversion?
• What does a Paired T test compare?
• What knee ROM is typically required for safe stair negotiation?
• Airborne precautions require which air flow and respirator?
• Erb's Palsy involves which nerve roots?
• S2 corresponds to which events?
• Which type of urinary incontinence is defined as leakage with increased abdominal pressure without bladder muscle contraction?
• During exercise testing, if a patient experiences Afib or Aflutter but has no symptoms, what is the recommended action?
• S1 corresponds to which cardiac event?
• Warfarin is also known as which of the following?
• A capsular pattern ROM in the shoulder is best described as which?
• Which hip test dislocates a hip by adducting and applying posterior pressure?
• Which FIM level indicates Minimal Assist, defined as patient participation of 75% or more?
• Which test helps differentiate hip labral pathology from impingement?
• What is a standard purpose of documenting prognosis and plan of care in physical therapy?
• Anterior cord syndrome is typically due to which mechanism?
• For wrist and hand, which position is recommended to prevent burn contractures?
• Which FIM level corresponds to Moderate Assist (patient participation 50% to 74%)?
• An ABI value of 1.2 is typically interpreted as which of the following?
• A capsular pattern is best described as which of the following?
• Which INR value is associated with high risk for hemorrhage?
• Chiari II Malformation involves downward displacement of which structures?
• Central cord syndrome most commonly results from which mechanism?
• S3 sound is an early diastolic sound after S2 during rapid ventricular filling. It can be normal in which group?
• When would multidisciplinary care be indicated in PT evaluation?
• What is the normal breathing rate range for a toddler aged 1 to 3 years?
• What red flag symptom would require immediate medical referral in a patient with low back pain?
• Contract Relax / Hold Relax technique involves what approach?
• Crackles (rales) are described as which sounds?
• The patellar reflex primarily tests which nerve root?
• Which concept describes the ability of a test to yield similar results when performed by different clinicians?
• An angioma is described as which of the following?
• Which statement correctly differentiates arterial and venous ulcers by positional changes?
• Dynamic valgus is defined as what knee action during landing and is commonly linked to which injury?
• Which index is specifically used to assess neck-related disability?
• Which acid-base disorder is most consistent with Kussmaul respiration, fruity breath, and diarrhea?
• Which test assesses proprioception at the knee?
• Uhthoff's phenomenon is best described as which of the following?
• The Belly Press Test is used to assess which structure?
• Which statement is typical of spinal stenosis?
• Lidocaine is delivered at which electrode in iontophoresis?
• Crackles are most commonly heard in which conditions?
• Which symptom is associated with shunt dysfunction in myelomeningocele?
• Which statement best describes a tetraplegia patient’s seated stability strategy?
• If the prosthesis is too long, a person typically leans toward which side?
• For knee burn contracture prevention, what is the recommended position?
• Pleural friction rub is described as which sound?
• What is the primary purpose of outcome measures in PT?
• Which movement commonly provokes Lhermitte's sign?
• Class 2 garment compression is most commonly used for which conditions?
• Which of the following is most relevant when deciding to refer a patient for evaluation outside the physical therapy scope?
• Which ABI range is normal?
• How can you differentiate noncapsular shoulder pathology from a capsular pattern?
• Which FIM level corresponds to Dependent (patient participation less than 25%)?
• Which exercise is recommended to strengthen a weak serratus anterior?
• In ROODS approach, how are fast and slow stimuli used?
• What is another name for the Empty Can test?
• Posterior hip arthroplasty precautions require avoiding which movements?
• Which description best characterizes basal cell carcinoma?
• How would you describe a 3/5 MMT grade?
• Rhythmic Stabilization involves what type of contraction and stabilization?
• Which test is used to assess a high ankle sprain involving the syndesmosis?
• How do inter-rater reliability and test-retest reliability differ?
• Droplet precautions are used to reduce transmission of diseases such as pertussis, meningitis, pneumonia, and rubella that spread via large droplets; what air flow and mask are used?
• Which measurement is most appropriate to monitor changes in a patient's status over time in PT?
• Which end feel is described as hard (bone-to-bone) contact during a joint range-of-motion assessment?
• Which ROM documentation elements should be included to ensure clarity?
• Femoroacetabular Impingement is characterized by structural variations of the proximal femur or acetabulum. Which presentation is typical?
• Which thyroid condition is characterized by decreased T3 and T4 with high TSH, sometimes presenting with myxedema and Hashimoto's disease?
• Which sequence describes respiratory acidosis?
• For ankle burn contracture prevention, what is the recommended position?
• Which symptom profile best fits respiratory acidosis?
• Which shoulder test is relatively specific for supraspinatus tendon pathology?
• What is a common limitation of manual muscle testing?
• Which sign is commonly seen with metabolic alkalosis?
• Which statement best describes disc herniation symptom pattern?
• Which history factor increases the risk of a stress fracture of the femur or pubic rami?
• ST elevation on an ECG is most closely associated with which acute cardiac event?
• Which type of urinary incontinence is described as urinary retention from bladder over-distention due to obstruction or impaired detrusor muscle, with leakage?
• Stage III lipedema is characterized by which feature?
• To prevent burn contractures, which shoulder position is recommended?
• Why are functional outcome measures important in PT?
• What educational approach is used to teach patients about pain neuroscience?
• Which of the following best describes end-feel documentation in ROM assessment?
• A steppage gait usually indicates weakness of which muscle group?
• Which headache type is associated with a pulsating quality and is often aggravated by routine physical activity, with nausea and photophobia?
• What does MCID stand for and its clinical relevance?
• The Belly Press Test helps identify tear of which rotator cuff muscle?
• Which condition is characterized by increased T3 and T4 with low TSH and may present with exophthalmos?
• In Oswestry Disability Questionnaire, a lower score indicates what?
• What end-feel is typical for a capsular shoulder restriction?
• Which sign is commonly used to screen for rotator cuff tear?
• What are the normal ankle range of motion values for dorsiflexion, plantarflexion, inversion, and eversion?
• Which statement best describes a limitation of standardized ROM norms when evaluating patients?
• Which pain assessment scale uses a 0–10 numeric rating?
• Brown-Séquard syndrome is classically caused by which type of trauma?
• Wheezes are described as which sound?
• Medial scapular winging is most commonly caused by injury to which nerve?
• Which end feel corresponds to soft tissue approximation?
• Which combination of signs suggests metabolic alkalosis?
• Imaging modalities used to evaluate disc herniation typically include which?
• How would you determine prognosis in a PT evaluation?
• Which sign is used to help diagnose appendicitis?
• What is the normal range for PaCO2 in an arterial blood gas?
• Which history is commonly associated with metabolic alkalosis?
• Which combination defines the closed-packed position of the hip?
• Which swing phase percentage is typical in a gait cycle?
• Sternal precautions typically include which restriction?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the ABCDE features used to screen melanoma?
• Which test is positive for stress fracture of the femur or pubic rami?
• What is the purpose of the systems review in physical therapy evaluation?
• Lumbar traction for a posterior disc herniation is performed in which position?
• Cluster Headache is more prevalent in which gender?
• Which statement best describes prognosis in PT evaluation?
• Which FIM level corresponds to Complete Independence (timely, safely)?
• In spine mobilization assessment, an opening restriction indicates mobilization of which side?
• Klumpke's palsy deformity is commonly described as which of the following?
• Klumpke's palsy involves which nerve roots?
• What does MDC stand for and what does it indicate?
• Posterior cord syndrome is associated with which cause?
• Spurling's test is used to reproduce radicular symptoms in the neck; a positive test most commonly suggests involvement of which structure?
• An S3 heart sound is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which of the following describes the traction force used for joint distraction in lumbar traction?
• In acid-base disorders, which statement best describes full compensation?
• Which test is a common measure of functional mobility and fall risk in the elderly?
• Wheezes are most commonly associated with which conditions?
• Chi-square test is used for comparing which type of data?
• Contextual factors example in PT documentation?
• Which sequence describes respiratory alkalosis?
• Which condition is defined by a defect in the pars interarticularis?
• What is the normal breathing rate range for a child aged 6 to 12 years?
• Which systems review finding would prompt medical clearance before initiating PT?
• Which medication is known to increase INR?
• What is Class 3 compression level in garment compression classification?
• Stage 1 (Reversible stage) of lymphedema is characterized by which description?
• What factors help justify the need for skilled physical therapy services in the evaluation?
• Arterial ulcers are characteristically better with which leg position?
• What safety step should you take before conducting functional tests in a patient with suspected lumbar issues?
• Hyperparathyroidism causes which calcium-related change?
• Hydrocephalus is defined as what?
• What does a large effect size in PT outcomes indicate?
• Which combination constitutes red flags for potential spinal infection or cancer?
• What is the primary purpose of palpation in the examination?
• Which Glasgow Coma Scale component has a maximum score of 6?
• Cluster headache is characterized by unilateral headache around the eye with autonomic symptoms.
• In above-knee prosthesis assessment, a high thigh wall indicates which of the following muscle status?
• Which sign would indicate possible cauda equina syndrome and require urgent referral?
• Closing and Gapping of spines: what effect does flexion have on intervertebral gaps?
• Which test measures anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur to assess ACL integrity?
• ANCOVA test is best described as which of the following?
• Which hip test reduces a dislocated hip by abducting and lifting the femur anteriorly?
• In Rhythmic Initiation, what sequence of movements is taught?
• Which headache is typically unilateral, more common in females, with pulsating quality, and associated with nausea, vomiting, and photophobia?
• Cervicogenic headache is typically characterized by unilateral pain that is aggravated by movement or sustained neck positions.
• Which statement best describes Type 1 muscle fibers?
• Name a patient-reported outcome measure commonly used for spine or limb disorders.
• Which symptom profile best fits respiratory alkalosis?
• Rhonchi are characterized by which sound?
• In a shoulder exam, what ROM pattern suggests a true capsular restriction?
• Which test assesses upper-extremity neural tissue tension for the median nerve?
• Agonist Reversals involve what contraction pattern and benefit?
• What is the appropriate action if ST depression is observed during an exercise test?
• Which knee test is most commonly used to assess ACL integrity?
• In the Craig test, internal rotation indicates which femoral version?
• During the Lachman test, what movement is tested?
• Which statement best describes test-retest reliability?
• In the long sitting test, what is a positive finding regarding limb lengths?
• What is the normal respiratory rate for a newborn?
• Venous ulcers are typically improved by which leg position?
• Very severe COPD is defined as FEV1 less than what percent?
• A positive Spurling's test indicates which condition?
• Correlation test assesses which of the following?
• An S4 heart sound is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Intrinsic minus position is best described as which hand posture?
• Tethered cord syndrome is best described as which of the following?
• Which condition is characterized by pain on pressure, unlike lymphedema?
• What is the primary effect of Rhythmic Rotation in neuromuscular rehabilitation?
• Stridor is best described as which of the following?
• Which imaging modality is most sensitive for acute soft tissue injuries?
• Lipedema Stage II is defined by which feature?
• Squamous cell carcinoma or actinic keratosis is described as which?
• What is the normal breathing rate range for an infant from birth to 1 year?
• What FEV1 range defines Moderate COPD?
• Which FIM level is defined as Modified Independence?
• Murphy's sign is classically associated with which condition?
• Which hip provocative test assesses femoroacetabular impingement risk?
• A low anterior thigh wall in an above-knee prosthesis suggests weakness of which muscle group?
• What is the maximum total score on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• S4 occurs immediately before which event?
• Which statement best describes ASIA impairment scale B classification?
• Which statement best describes the minimal detectable change (MDC)?
• Clark's sign is another name for which patellofemoral assessment?
• Which outcome measure is commonly used for knee osteoarthritis?
• Abdominal aortic aneurysm refers to dilation of which vessel segment?
• An ABI value less than 0.50 indicates which level of arterial disease?
• Which test is commonly used to assess patellofemoral joint dysfunction?
• What does the ICF model include in PT documentation?
• Which headache type is characterized by tightness or pressure across the forehead and is often associated with stress?
• What is the typical sequence of the PT evaluation components?
• Which balance strategy corresponds to a fast, large perturbation requiring a stepping response?
• Which test is used to assess ACL integrity when ACL injury is suspected?
• What cardiovascular change is typically observed during aquatic therapy?